众所周知,在black-scholes模型中,n(d2)代表着在风险中性测度下,以**债券为计价单位时股价在到期日高于行权价的概率。 那么为什么n(d1)是以股票价格为计价单位时股价高于行权价的概率? 我再用英文重复一遍: in bs model, n(d2) ** the probability that the option expires in-the-money under r**k-neutral measure, with r**kless bond being the numeraire. why ** n(d1) the probability that the option expires in… 20210311